Biomedical Sciences Diagnostic Test

Question 1 of 80

How many parathyroid glands are there?

A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
E) six

Question 2 of 80

Type I collagen is found in which of the following?

A) bone
B) nucleus pulposus of the vertebral disc
C) blood vessels
D) ears
E) all of the above

Question 3 of 80

All of the following muscles are derived from the first branchial arch except:

A) muscles of mastication
B) stapedius
C) mylohyoid
D) tensor palate
E) tensor tympani

Question 4 of 80

Which of the following cells is located in the seminiferous tubules and helps in the process of spermatogenesis?

A) sertoli cells
B) leydig cells
C) germ cells
D) diploid cells
E) all of the above

Question 5 of 80

The vessel that carries blood from the right ventricle to the lungs is the:

A) pulmonary artery
B) pulmonary vein
C) aorta
D) superior vena cava
E) inferior vena cava

Question 6 of 80

The correct order of blood flow starting from the superior vena cava is:

1 – right atrium
2 – left atrium
3 – right ventricle
4 – left ventricle
5 – vena cava
6 – pulmonary artery
7 – pulmonary vein
8 – tricuspid AV valve
9 – bicuspid (mitral) AV valve
10 – pulmonary valve
11 – aortic valve
12 – aorta

A) 5, 1, 8, 3, 10, 6, 7, 2, 9, 4, 11, 12
B) 5, 1, 8, 3, 11, 6, 7, 2, 9, 4, 10, 12
C) 5, 1, 8, 3, 10, 7, 6, 2, 9, 4, 11, 12
D) 5, 1, 9, 3, 10, 6, 7, 2, 8, 4, 11, 12
E) 5, 1, 9, 3, 10, 7, 6, 2, 8, 4, 11, 12

Question 7 of 80

The vessel that carries blood from the lungs to the left atrium is the;

A) pulmonary artery
B) pulmonary vein
C) aorta
D) superior vena cava
E) inferior vena cava

Question 8 of 80

Which of the following nerves innervates the stomach?

A) phrenic nerve
B) trigeminal nerve
C) auriculotemporal nerve
D) splenic nerve
E) vagus nerve

Question 9 of 80

Folic acid is absorbed in the:

A) duodenum
B) stomach
C) jejunum
D) ileum
E) appendix

Question 10 of 80

The right lung is composed of which of the following lobes?

A) superior, middle, inferior lobe
B) superior and inferior lobe
C) superior lobe and lingula
D) inferior lobe and lingula
E) superior, middle, inferior lobe and lingula

Question 11 of 80

The pituitary gland sits in the:

A) sella turcica
B) hypothalamus
C) sphenoid sinus
D) diapghragm sellae
E) cavernous sinus

Question 12 of 80

Which of the following conducting passageways of the respiratory system are lined by pseudostratified columnar epithelial tissue?

A) nasal cavity
B) trachea
C) bronchi
D) bronchioles
E) all of the above

Question 13 of 80

All of the following bones are derived from the second branchial arch except:

A) stapes
B) styloid process
C) malleus
D) lesser horn of hyoid bone
E) upper half of body of hyoid bone

Question 14 of 80

Type II collagen is found in which of the following?

A) bone
B) nucleus pulposus of the vertebral disc
C) blood vessels
D) ears
E) all of the above

Question 15 of 80

The site of cardiac potential is initiated at the

A) SA node
B) AV node
C) Bundle of His
D) purkinge fibers
E) left ventricle

Question 16 of 80

The muscles of mastication are innervated by which of the following cranial nerves (CN)?

A) CN I
B) CN II
C) CN III
D) CN IV
E) CN V

Question 17 of 80

How many leaflets is the mitral valve made up of?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5

Question 18 of 80

The parotid gland lies anterior to the ear between the masseter muscle and skin. The parotid duct opens into the vestibule next to the upper canine.

A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) First statement is true, second statement is false
D) First statement is false, second statement is true

Question 19 of 80

The endoderm, the innermost layer of the blastopore, gives rise to all of the following structures except:

A) Epithelium of digestive tract
B) Liver
C) Epithelium of respiratory tract
D) Thyroid Gland
E) Tooth Enamel

Question 20 of 80

The inferior thyroid artery is a branch of the:

A) external carotid artery
B) internal carotid artery
C) subclavian artery
D) aorta
E) brachiocephalic artery

Question 21 of 80

Which of the following vitamins is lipid soluble?

A) vitamin B1
B) vitamin B6
C) vitamin B
D) vitamin C
E) vitamin A

Question 22 of 80

Which of the following hormones is responsible for milk release from the mammary gland?

A) prolactin
B) oxytocin
C) growth hormone
D) thyroid stimulating hormone
E) estrogen

Question 23 of 80

Which of the following is released from the adrenal gland from the layer medulla?

A) DHEA-sulfate
B) aldosterone
C) cortisol
D) epinephrine & norepinephrine
E) adrenocorticotropic hormone

Question 24 of 80

Iron is absorbed in the:

A) stomach
B) duodenum
C) jejunum
D) ileum
E) large intestine

Question 25 of 80

Lactose is a combination of what two monosaccharides?

A) glucose and glucose
B) glucose and fructose
C) galactose and fructose
D) glucose and galactose
E) none of the above

Question 26 of 80

On an ECG, which of the following represents ventricular repolarization?

A) P wave
B) QRS complex
C) T wave
D) U wave
E) ST segment

Question 27 of 80

On an ECG, which of the following represents a first degree heart block?

A) elevated ST segment
B) prolonged P wave
C) prolonged QRS complex
D) prolonged U wave
E) inverted QRS complex

Question 28 of 80

Which vitamin when deficient will cause prolonged coagulation?

A) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin B12
C) Vitamin A
D) Vitamin K
E) Vitamin E

Question 29 of 80

Intercalated discs in cardiac muscle consist of which types of cell-cell junctions?

A) actin filament anchoring adherens junctions
B) intermediate filament anchoring desmosomes
C) gap junctions
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 30 of 80

Which of the following tissues is referred to as trabecular or spongy tissue and fills the interior of bone?

A) cortical bone
B) osteoblasts
C) bone marrow
D) cancellous bone
E) osteoclasts

Question 31 of 80

The nucleic acid cytosine binds with what other nucleic acid?

A) adenine
B) guanine
C) thymine
D) uracil
E) cysteine

Question 32 of 80

Which of the following types of hemoglobin causes sickle cell anemia?

A) Hemoglobin A
B) Hemoglobin B
C) Hemoglobin delta
D) Hemoglobin S
E) Hemoglobin F

Question 33 of 80

The neurotransmitter acetylcholine is secreted from the:

A) basal nucleus of meynert
B) substantia nigra pars compacta
C) nucleus accumbens
D) locus coeruleus
E) venture tegmentum

Question 34 of 80

Which of the following causes a shift to the left on the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve?

A) exercise
B) increased temperature
C) acidosis
D) high altitude
E) hemoglobin F

Question 35 of 80

Which of the following amino acids has an uncharged side chain?

A) serine
B) alanine
C) leucine
D) histidine
E) lysine

Question 36 of 80

Which of the following is the main protein in plasma that functions to regulate the colloidal osmotic pressure of blood?

A) albumin
B) hemoglobin
C) gluose
D) platelets
E) all of the above

Question 37 of 80

Which of the following is the correct order of mitosis?

A) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
B) metaphase, anaphase, prophase, telophase, cytokinesis
C) cytokinesis, prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
D) telophase, metaphase, prophase, anaphase
E) prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase

Question 38 of 80

Which of the following nucleic acids in RNA binds to adenine?

A) uracil
B) thymine
C) cytosine
D) guanine
E) uric acid

Question 39 of 80

Interphase is a stage of the cell cycle that is comprised of which phases?

A) G0 and G1 phase
B) G0, G1 and G2 phases
C) G1, S and G2 phases
D) G1, S, G2 and M phases
E) G0, G1, S, G2 and M phases

Question 40 of 80

Which of the following is responsible for the rest of the heart’s contractions and is sometimes called the primary pacemaker?

A) SA node
B) AV node
C) purkinje fibers
D) vagus nerve
E) none of the above

Question 41 of 80

Which of the following organisms is likely to cause pneumonia from the air conditioner?

A) legionella
B) klebsiella
C) staphylococcus aureus
D) tuberculosis
E) pseudomonas

Question 42 of 80

Plasma cells are fully differentiated cells from what cell line?

A) B cells
B) Helper T cells
C) Regulatory T cells
D) Natural killer cells
E) Cytotoxic T cells

Question 43 of 80

Which is the following treatment for Pneumocystis Jiroveci Pneumonia (PCP)?

A) bactrim
B) vancomycin
C) ampicillin
D) linezolid
E) amphotericin B

Question 44 of 80

Pneumocystis Jiroveci Pneumonia (PCP) is often found with what other clinical condition?

A) HIV
B) diabetes
C) hypertension
D) pregnancy
E) lyme disease

Question 45 of 80

Which of the following antibiotics is bacteriocidal?

A) tetracycline
B) clindamycin
C) penicillin
D) erythromycin
E) trimethoprim

Question 46 of 80

What is the treatment of choice for clostridium dificile?

A) bactrim
B) metronidazole
C) ampicillin
D) linezolid
E) amphotericin B

Question 47 of 80

The vaccine for the human papilloma virus is effective for which of the following serotypes?

A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32

Question 48 of 80

Which of the following can cause restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A) sarcoidosis
B) alcohol disease
C) cocaine use
D) doxorubicin toxicity
E) peripartum cardiomyopathy

Question 49 of 80

Cardiac myxomas are typically found in the:

A) aorta
B) right atrium
C) right ventricle
D) left atrium
E) left ventricle

Question 50 of 80

Fungi contain long filamentous branches that are the main mode of vegetative growth. These are called:

A) septa
B) chitin
C) villi
D) hyphae
E) none of the above

Question 51 of 80

Which of the following cancers is associated with elevated levels of CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen)?

A) liver cancer
B) gastric cancer
C) pancreatic cancer
D) colon cancer
E) thyroid cancer

Question 52 of 80

What is the treatment of choice for a pregnant female with syphilis allergic to penicillin?

A) penicillin
B) ampicillin
C) vancomycin
D) linezolid
E) clindamycin

Question 53 of 80

Which form of hypersensitivity reactions is best classified by the disease asthma?

A) Type I
B) Type 2
C) Type 3
D) Type 4
E) Type 5

Question 54 of 80

Wernicke- Korsakoff syndrome results from a deficiency in:

A) thiamine
B) glucose
C) folic acid
D) vitamin C
E) vitamin D

Question 55 of 80

What is the treatment of choice for a pregnant female with syphilis?

A) penicillin
B) ampicillin
C) vancomycin
D) linezolid
E) clindamycin

Question 56 of 80

Which of the following condition can lead to hepatic cancer?

A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis D
D) Hepatitis E
E) Hepatitis F

Question 57 of 80

Which of the following does not denote a malignant neoplasm?

A) adenoma
B) hepatoma
C) neuroblastoma
D) melanoma
E) seminoma

Question 58 of 80

Which of the following antibiotics is bacteriostatic?

A) clindamycin
B) vancomycin
C) penicillin
D) aminoglycosine
E) cephalosporin

Question 59 of 80

Wernicke- Korsakoff syndrome results from destruction of the:

A) limbic system
B) caudate
C) putamen
D) basal ganglia
E) mamillary bodies

Question 60 of 80

Which of the following conditions can be classified as nephritic syndrome?

A) IgA glomerulonephropathy
B) minimal change disease
C) diffuse membranous glomerulopathy
D) membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
E) sickle cell nephropathy

Question 61 of 80

Which of the following describes an individual characterized by a broad square face with a strong chin, flat lip posture, low mandible plane angle and a straight profile?

A) brachycephalic
B) brachyfacial
C) dolicocephalic
D) dolicofacial
E) mesocephalic

Question 62 of 80

According to the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry (AAPD), what percent of the youth, ages 12-17 years old, have some type of occlusal disharmony?

A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 89%
E) 100%

Question 63 of 80

Of the five cusps of the mandibular first molar, which one is the largest?

A) mesiobuccal
B) distobuccal
C) mesiolingual
D) distolingual
E) distal

Question 64 of 80

Excessive thumbsucking into the late childhood years can lead to which of the following conditions?

A) open bite
B) overjet
C) overbite
D) crossbite
E) all of the above

Question 65 of 80

Which class of malocclusion is displayed by an underbite?

A) Class I
B) Class II Div 1
C) Class II Div 2
D) Class III
E) all of the above

Question 66 of 80

Which of the following cusps of the maxillary first molar is the smallest?

A) mesiobuccal cusp
B) distobuccal cusp
C) mesiolingual cusp
D) distolingual cusp
E) all of the above

Question 67 of 80

The maxillary primate space is usually found in the primary dentition between:

A) Central incisors
B) Central and lateral incisors
C) Lateral incisors and canine
D) Canine and first molar
E) First and second molars

Question 68 of 80

All of the following muscles functions in closing the jaw except the:

A) masseter
B) medial pterygoid
C) superior head of lateral pterygoid
D) inferior head of lateral pterygoid
E) anterior and middle temporalis

Question 69 of 80

Breastfed individuals have the best chance of having what type of occlusion?

A) Class I
B) Class II Div 1
C) Class II Div 2
D) Class III
E) all of the above

Question 70 of 80

The cusp of Carabelli is most commonly found on which permanent tooth?

A) mandibular first molar
B) mandibular second molar
C) maxillary first molar
D) maxillary first premolar
E) maxillary second premolar

Question 71 of 80

Which of the following permanent teeth has the widest mesiodistal diameter of all the molar teeth?

A) mandibular first molar
B) mandibular second molar
C) maxillary first molar
D) maxillary second molar
E) maxillary third molar

Question 72 of 80

Which of the following is true of the Curve of Wilson?

A) it is a mediolateral curve that contacts the buccal and lingual cusp tips of each side of the arch
B) results from the inward inclination of lower posterior teeth
C) on mandible, the lingual cusps are lower than the buccal cusps
D) on the maxilla, the buccal cusps are higher than the lingual cusps due to the outward inclination of upper posterior teeth
E) all of the above

Question 73 of 80

Overjet is a vertical measurement. Overbite is a horizontal measurement.

A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) First statement is true, second statement is false
D) First statement is false, second statement is true

Question 74 of 80

Which of the following characterize the mandibular permanent canine?

A) root is bifurcated near its tip
B) less developed cingulum
C) mesial/distal aspects exhibit a triangular outline
D) mesial cusp ridge is much shorter than the distal cusp ridge
E) all of the above

Question 75 of 80

All of the following are true of the primary mandibular first molar except:

A) it resembles an upper second premolar
B) there are two roots
C) it has a strong bulge that protrudes buccally at the mesial
D) the mesiolingual cusp is the highest and largest of the cusps
E) all of the above

Question 76 of 80

In prenatal life, the first indication of tooth formation occurs as early as:

A) 4th week
B) 5th week
C) 6th week
D) 7th week
E) 8th week

Question 77 of 80

The mesial contact point of the maxillary central incisor is located at the:

A) cervical third
B) middle third
C) incisal third
D) junction of incisal and middle third
E) junction of cervical and middle third

Question 78 of 80

The eruption pattern of primary teeth is as follows:

A) central, lateral, 1st molar, canine, 2nd molar
B) central, lateral, canine, 1st molar, 2nd molar
C) central, canine, lateral, 1st molar, 2nd molar
D) central, 1st molar, lateral, canine, 2nd molar
E) central, 2nd molar, 1st molar, canine, lateral

Question 79 of 80

The cusp of carabelli is usually found on which cusp of the maxillary first molar?

A) mesiobuccal cusp
B) distobuccal cusp
C) mesiolingual cusp
D) distolingual cusp
E) all of the above

Question 80 of 80

Which of the following are true of ankylosis?

A) peak prevalence at 8-9 years of age
B) occurs from an anatomic fusion of tooth cementum or dentin to alveolar bone
C) can occur at any age
D) etiology can be a local change in metabolism
E) all of the above

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